Wednesday, July 31, 2019

Badminton Essay Essay

Self-efficacy and social influences are two guiding principles in the study of sociology of sport. Self-efficacy is an individual’s personal estimate of confidence in his or her capability to accomplish a certain level of performance, whereas social influence occurs when others affect one’s emotions, opinions, behaviors and choices. These sociocultural factors are linked to Figueroa’s framework, which influence my participation in badminton. In this essay, the focus in on self-efficacy and social stigma-related socio-cultural factors, which are constituent elements in the sports socialization process and have influenced my active involvement in Badminton. The purpose of this assignment is to evaluate the impact that sociocultural influences have had on my decision to play on the Moreton Bay College badminton team. Professor Peter Figueroa developed a tool also known as Figueroa’s Framework, which investigates the issues surrounding access, equity and equality in sport and physical activity. It is structured over five different levels: individual, interpersonal, institutional, structural and cultural, these areas are used to investigate the ways in which inequities challenge the area of sport and physical activity. All five levels connect within each other and they all influence the shaping of the overall effect. They show the different functions that reinforce, create, remove and eliminate barriers and inequities within sport and physical activity. The level of Figeuroa’s Framework that affects my participation in badminton the greatest was the interpersonal level and individual level. The interpersonal level of Figueroa’s framework is used to investigate the relationships that affect whether an individual will develop a lifelong association with sport. Most individuals ar e influenced directly or indirectly by the people around them such as parents, peers, siblings, teachers, coaches, or sporting role models. In particular, one barrier that had an impact upon my participation in Badminton is self-efficacy. The theory of self-efficacy â€Å"was developed within the framework of social cognitive theory, which views individuals as proactive agents in the regulation of their cognition, motivation, actions,  and emotions.† When playing badminton I feel vulnerable to this problem of self-efficacy as my self-esteem is affected by my performance because I feel as if I am judged by how well I perform. As I have such high expectations to perform well in badminton, I am very critical and hard on myself. This leads to poor self-efficacy which forces me to believe I do not have the capability for success in Badminton. Someone with high self-efficacy is confident and motivated to work toward a learning goal and someone such as myself with low self-efficacy in badminton is not as motivated, which effects how much effort is put into a particular task. Self-efficacy is based on a social learning theory and is a construct that affects motivation and thus can promote or inhibit learning different skills. Consequently, as Allender et al. (2006) suggests, when an individual has limited confidence in their own ability to perform, enjoyment levels decline and inevitably, participation ceases. Pratt et al. (1999) found that perceived competence and sport ability beliefs had a â€Å"strong and direct impact on enjoyment†. As enjoyment is a precursor to ongoing participation, it is thus evident that self-efficacy is an important factor in my participation in Badminton. A study by McCarthy, Jones and Clark-Carter (2008) investigated the sources of enjoyment reported by youth sport participants and found that positive parental involvement was one of the most frequently reported results by young males and females. This implies that when children in sport perceive parental involvement as positive, they are more likely to enjoy their sporting experience. When we are young, our families influence us more than outsiders do. If your parents played sports, took you to sporting contests, helped you learn basic sport skills, and encouraged you to participate, chances are you gave sports a try. It has been proven that parental influence extends to the parents perception of the sports their children choose to participate in. That is, parents can transmit values through communicating their beliefs, acceptance, and support to their child’s participation in sport. Numerous studies have demonstrated the importance of parental interpretation, often showing th at too much parental feedback causes undue stress in young athletes and can cause them not to participate in certain sports, but the appropriate amounts of encouragement and support can increase enjoyment and longevity of the athletes’ involvement. Parental  interpretation is a powerful mechanism because it communicates expected and valued behaviors. Children internalize parental values and expectations therefore; children try to behave in ways that maximize their acceptance in the social setting. Thus, as my parents communicate that they do not value badminton as an exceptional sport, it is unlikely for me to participate in this sport. Also as my parents are not actively involved, nor intentionally provide sporting experiences for the sport of badminton; it is very unlikely that I was ever exposed to the sporting world of badminton as a child. In conclusion, self-efficacy and social influences are two of the central motives that have influenced my decision to play on the college badminton team. These sociocultural factors target the Interpersonal and Structural level of Figueroa’s framework. The influence of outsiders such as family and peers and my perceived capability at a particular time to perform the specified badminton skills has led me to the decision of not participating in the Moreton Bay College badminton team.

Tuesday, July 30, 2019

Morality in Copying CD’s Essay

Morality is an issue that will forever encompass debates from thousands of sectors around the world. There are no definite set of rules of what is moral and what is not; as such, it will infinitely be hard to define. Judging someone’s morality is going to be difficult given this lack of definitive structure of the subject itself. This paper will be discussing piracy (which is what copying cd’s may lead to) in the context of morality. As difficult as the task may sound, this paper shall try to be as objective as it can be given the infinite boundary of the context. Piracy Piracy has been the thorn on the side of the music industry since the early 1990’s. Piracy is not even hard to do, given that one must simply stick a CD to a computer then transfer its entire contents to another and from there, numerous other copies can be made. The cycle does not and will not stop because most people prefer things for free. College students who must be the most frequent computer users will not be averse to copying CDs and distributing it to others. They sure enjoy their music and they normally are under strict budget due to their educational financial needs. The music industry is not the only field that piracy has wrecked. Almost anything that is being distributed on a CD or uploaded online has been endangered by piracy. Software is easily pirated, the newest Microsoft products are easily found on bootleg shops, finding its way easily in the third world black market. Aside from software, there are videogames and movies that can easily be copied and sold for much less than the producer originally retailed it, all illegally, of course. With piracy, the artists, software developers, producers, actors, programmers suffer as they are not paid the royalties they deserve for working hard on their respective projects but the consumers win, as they get the media they want/need for free or at a considerably lower price. The Utilitarian Approach According to Velasquez, et al. (1989), â€Å"utilitarianism is a moral principle that holds that the morally right course of action in any situation is the one that produces the greatest balance of benefits over harms for everyone affected.† The utilitarian approach can certainly be used by those who copy the CD’s and distribute it to a wider span of users. When a person purchases a CD and uploads its entire content online on a file sharing site, his reasoning is that, such upload can share the music to a wider variety of people. These people can get it for free thanks to that one person who uploaded it for sharing out of the goodness of his heart. When a person buys a CD, he has paid for rights to use the content of that music. No matter how he abuses the content of that CD by repeated usage is something he is entitled to do. However, copying the entire contents of the CD and giving the copy to another person is another story as herein, he has breached some legal boundaries of his usage. Morality may be a subject that is infinite but legality has very strict confines and stepping beyond its boundaries is punishable by a hefty sum, long hours of community service or jail time. The utilitarian reasoning is not a defense against illegal acts and as such, one cannot escape punishment by reiterating that he committed piracy for the benefit of the world, out of the goodness of his heart. In addition, the utilitarian approach does not consider the minority who will be affected by such act. For instance, the loss of income to those people who have labored to bring the media out on the market is not something utilitarianism will consider. Deontological Ethics According to the Encyclopedia Britannica (n.d.), â€Å"in deontological ethics an action is considered morally good because of some characteristic of the action itself, not because the product of the action is good.† Given this definition, copying CDs onto another computer, given today’s anti-piracy campaign, is not going to be considered moral even though the intentions maybe good and the act may be easy to do. Music, movie, software, videogame industries have lost billions of dollars because of piracy, they are trying to fight it as best they can and as such, there are piracy warnings/threats on almost every media distributed. Doing it anyway will certainly question one’s morality over it. To circumvent this, one does not usually copy CD’s. He goes to websites where he can share files. However, in the UK, such file sharing can now be considered illegal (Solanki 2010). Such is the campaign against piracy that in the US, every digital media sold in the market is protected by DRM, a software that limits the number of devices the content can be played in to typically, 5 machines (Grossman 2007). Exceeding this limit can raise questions on one’s morality via Deontological Ethics. Conclusion Copying the contents of a CD is piracy. Piracy nowadays is a criminal offense that is punishable by law. One can hardly find anything moral over something that is illegal. Even though piracy may be the most tolerated crime in the world, it will be best for the person to stay on the conservative side and not commit it, for his personal welfare. References: Encyclopedia Britannica. (n.d.) Deontological ethics. Retrieved 19 July 2010 from http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/158162/deontological-ethics Grossman, L. (2007). The Battle Over Music Piracy. Time.   Retrieved 19 July 2010 from http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,1625209,00.html Solanki, M. (2010). File sharing becomes illegal as Government pushes through Digital Economy Bill. SeekBroadband. Retrieved 19 July 2010 from http://seekbroadband.com/focus/2010/04/09/internet-technology-news/file-sharing-becomes-illegal-as-government-pushes-through-digital-economy-bill/ Velasquez, M. et al. (1989). Calculating Consequences: The Utilitarian Approach to Ethics. Issues in Ethics V2 N1. Retrieved 19 July 2010 from http://www.scu.edu/ethics/practicing/decision/calculating.html

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385

1. Which if the following IPv6 address type is assigned to multiple interfaces but packets will only be delivered to one? a. Multicast b. Anycast c. Unicast d. Broadcast Grade:1 User Responses:b. Anycast Feedback:a. An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes. Packets are delivered to the â€Å"first† interface only. 2. Routers operate at which OSI layer? a. Physical b. Transport c. Network d. Session Grade:1 User Responses:c. Network Feedback:a. Routers operate at the network layer making routing decisions based on IP addresses. 3. Which of the following is NOT a private IPv4 address? Choose all that apply. a. 192. 168. 5. 60 b. 172. 25. 6. 4 c. 10. 0. 6. 5 d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Feedback:a. The private IP address ranges are as follows. IP Class Assigned Range Class A 10. 0. 0. 0-10. 255. 255. 255 Class B 172. 16. 0. 0-172. 31. 255. 255 Class C 192. 168. 0. 0-192. 168. 255. 2554. What is a server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set called? a. Proxy b. Firewall c. Load balancer d. NAT server Grade:1 User Responses:a. Proxy Feedback:a. A server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set of rules is called a proxy server. NAT servers perform private to public address translation; load balancers manage traffic between cluster hosts; and a firewall filters traffic based on access control lists.5. Which type of device maintains awareness of the status of connections, thereby preventing IP spoofing attacks? a. Stateless packet filterin g firewall b. Stateful packet filtering firewall c. NAT filter d. Application-level gateway Grade:1 User Responses:b. Stateful packet filtering firewall Feedback:a. A stateful packet filtering firewall is one that monitors the state of each connection by examining the header of each packet. Read this  Chapter 2 – Why Security is Needed A stateless packet filtering firewall does not do this. NAT filters perform only private-to-public address translation. An application-level gateway provides protection to a specific application such as FTP.6. Which of the following firewall services works at the session layer of the OSI model? a. Application layer gateway b. Stateful filtering c. NAT d. Circuit-level gateway Grade:0 User Responses:c. NAT Feedback:a. Circuit-level gateways work at the Session Layer of the OSI model and apply security mechanisms when a TCP or UDP connection is established; they act as a go between for the Transport and Application Layers in TCP/IP.After the connection has been made, packets can flow between the hosts without further checking. Circuit-level gateways hide information about the private network, but they do not filter individual packets.7. Which of the following are the two main functions of a proxy server? a. Caching of web pages b. NAT c. Domain authentication d. DHCP Grade:1 User Respo nses:a. Caching of web pages,c. Domain authentication Feedback:a. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. b. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time.8. Which of the following devices can detect but not prevent attacks across the entire network? a. NIDS b. Host-based IDS c. NIPS d. Protocol Analyzer Grade:1 User Responses:a. NIDS Feedback:a. Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) detect but do not prevent attacks across the entire network. Host-based IDS can protect only the host on which it is installed. Network Intrusion Protection Systems (NIPS) can detect and prevent attacks across the entire network. A Protocol Analyzer ca n capture traffic but not act upon it.9. When a NIPs blocks legitimate traffic, what is it known as? a. False negative b. True negative c. False positive d. True positive Grade:1 User Responses:c. False positive Feedback:a. A blocking of traffic is a positive action, and when it is in response to legitimate traffic, it is considered a false action; thus it is a false positive. A false negative would be when an action is NOT taken on traffic that is not legitimate. The other two options are normal actions; a true negative is the allowing of legitimate traffic, whereas a true positive is the blocking of illegitimate traffic.10. Which of the following types of NIPS reacts to actions that deviate from a baseline? a. Signature-based b. Heuristic c. Anomaly-based d. Bit blocker Grade:1 User Responses:c. Anomaly-based Feedback:a. Anomaly-based NIPS recognizes traffic that is unusual and reports it. Signature-based NIPs are configured with the signatures of attacks. Heuristics looks for pat terns in the traffic, whereas bit blocker is a not a type of NIPs.11. Which of the following systems attempt to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications? a. DHCP b. DNS c. DLP d. STP Grade:1 User Responses:c. DLP Feedback:a. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems are designed to protect data by way of content inspection. They are meant to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications. As such, they are often also referred to as data leak prevention (DLP) devices, information leak prevention (ILP) devices, and extrusion prevention systems.Regardless, they are intended to be used to keep data from leaking past a computer system or network and into unwanted hands.12. When a company buys fire insurance they are ____________ risk. a. accepting b. avoiding c. transferring d. reducing Grade:1 User Responses:c. transferring Feedback:a. It is possible to transfer some risk to a third-party. An example of risk transference (also k nown as risk sharing) would be an organization that purchases insurance for a group of servers in a datacenter.The organization still takes on the risk of losing data in the case of server failure, theft, and disaster, but transfers the risk of losing the money those servers are worth in the case they are lost.13. Which of the following processes block external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser? a. URL filtering b. Content filtering c. Malware inspection d. Blacklists Grade:1 User Responses:b. Content filtering Feedback:a. Content filtering is a process that blocks external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser. URL filtering blocks pages based on the URL.Malware inspection looks for malware based on a signature file, and blacklists are items to be denied by spam filters.14. Which of the following actions should NOT be taken for the default account on a network device? a. Delete it. b. Change the password. c. Disable it. d. Leave it as is. Grade:1 User Responses:d. Leave it as is. Feedback:a. The default account has a well-known username and password, so it should be either deleted or disabled, or at a minimum its password should be changed.15. Firewall rules are typically based in all but which of the following? a. IP addresses b. MAC addresses c. Port numbers . Content type Grade:1 User Responses:d. Content type Feedback:a. Firewall rules are typically based on IP addresses, MAC addresses, or port numbers, but they cannot filter for content.16. Which of the following is the target of a double tagging attack? a. VPNs b. VLANs c. Collision domains d. DMZs Grade:1 User Responses:b. VLANs Feedback:a. A double tagging attack can enable the attacker to view traffic from multiple VLANs.17. A network created to allow access to resources from the Internet, while maintaining separation from the internal network is called a ______? a. VPN b. VLAN c. Honeypot d. DMZ Grade:1User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. When talking about computer security, a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a special area of the network (sometimes referred to as a subnetwork) that houses servers which host information accessed by clients or other networks on the Internet, but which does not allow access to the internal network.18. How can access to the remote management of a router be protected? a. Content filtering b. ACLs c. Firewalls d. IPS Grade:0 User Responses:c. Firewalls Feedback:a. Remote access to a router is usually done via Telnet or SSH. The port used (vty line) can be secured using an access control list. The other options can all be used to help protect routers but not access the remote management function.19. You need to allow access from your network to all web sites. What port numbers should be opened in the firewall? Choose all that apply. a. 25 b. 443 c. 80 d. 119 e. 22 f. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:c. 80 Feedback:a. HTTP and HTTPS are the two services you need to allow access to use ports 80 and 443 res pectively.20. Which of the following mitigation techniques can prevent MAC flooding? a. Secure VLANs b. Prevent ICMP responses c. 802. 1x d. 802. 1q Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 1x Feedback:a.MAC flooding, which involves overwhelming the memory of the switch with MAC frames sourced from different MAC addresses, can be prevented by requiring authentication on each port through 802. 1x. Secure VLANs cannot prevent this because the frames don’t need to enter a VLAN to cause the problem. ICMP is at Layer 3, these frames are at Layer 2, and 802. 1q is a VLAN tagging protocol that does not prevent frames from entering the switch through access ports.21. Which of the following attacks cannot be mitigated with a flood guard? a. Smurf attack b. Fraggle c. Teardrop attack d. Session theft Grade:1 User Responses:d.Session theft Feedback:a. The smurf, fraggle, and teardrop attacks all involve sending a flood of packets to a device, using different types of malformed packets. A session theft attack is when a session cookie is stolen and used to authenticate to a server.22. Loop protection is designed to address problems that occur with which device? a. Switch b. Hub c. Router d. Firewall Grade:0 User Responses:b. Hub Feedback:a. Loops occur when switches have redundant connections causing a loop. Loop guard (or loop protection) can prevent loops on the switch.23. When creating an ACL which of the following statements is NOT true? a.The order of the rules is important for proper functioning b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning c. The more specific rules should be placed at the beginning of the rule list d. Once created, the ACL must be applied to an interface Grade:1 User Responses:b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning Feedback:a. There is an implied deny all statement at the end of each ACL and it is not required to include one.24. Which of the following is a n example of insecure network bridging in a LAN? a. Laptop connected to a hotspot and an ad hoc network . Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time c. Router connected to two subnets d. PC connected with two NIC to the same LAN Grade:1 User Responses:b. Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time Feedback:a. When a laptop connects to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time, it can create a bridge between the two allowing access to the LAN. The other scenarios do not create a security problem for the LAN.25. When the administrator creates a rule on the firewall to prevent FTP traffic, this is a type of __________rule. . implicit deny b. implicit allow c. explicit deny d. explicit allow Grade:1 User Responses:c. explicit deny Feedback:a. When traffic is specified to be prevented, it is an explicit deny. When it is denied simply because it was not specifically allowed, that is an implicit deny.26. Network Acces s Control (NAC) is an example of_______________. a. role-based management b. rules-based management c. port-based access d. application layer filtering Grade:1 User Responses:b. rules-based management Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed.Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks.27. What type of device is required for communication between VLANs? a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Firewall Grade:1 User Responses:c. Router Feedback:a. Hosts in different VLANs are also in different subnets and routing must be performed for them to communicate.28. Which of the following would be least likely to be placed in the DMZ? a. Web server b. DNS server c. Domain controller d. FTP serverGrade:1 User Responses:c. Domain controller Feedback:a. All th e options except a domain controller are often placed in the DMZ so they are accessible to the outside world. A DC however is sensitive and should NOT be placed in the DMZ.29. Subnetting a network creates segmentation at which layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. Layer 3 Feedback:a. Subnetting a network creates segmentation using IP addresses, which is Layer 3.30. What service is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. DLP Grade:0User Responses:a. NAT Feedback:a. Network Address Translation (NAT) is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address. The specific form of NAT required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address is called Port Address Translation (PAT).31. Which of the following is NOT a remote access protocol? a. MS-CHAP b. CHAP c. LDAP d. PAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. LDAP Feedb ack:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used for accessing directory services such as Active Directory. It is not used in remote access. All other options are remote access protocols.32. Which of the following devices are susceptible to war dialing? a. Modems b. Firewalls c. Content filters d. Load balancers Grade:0 User Responses:a. Modems Feedback:a. Any devices that accept phone calls such as modems or PBX systems with remote phone access are susceptible to war dialing.33. When computers are not allowed to connect to the network without proper security patches and virus updates, the network is using a form of _____________. a. PAT b. DAC c. NAC d. DMZ Grade:0 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed.Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks.34. Which of the following items do not need to be changed on a new router to ensure secure router management? a. IP address b. Administrator name c. Administrator password d. IOS version Grade:1 User Responses:d. IOS version Feedback:a. All the options except the IOS version can be set to defaults from the factory and should be changed because they are well known.35. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud computing? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS) are all forms of cloud computing.36. On which concept is cloud computing based? a. load balancing b. virtualization c. RAID d. DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. virtualization Feedback:a. All forms of cloud computing use virtualization.37. A three legged perimeter is a form of ______________. a. VPN b. DMZ c. NAT d. ACL Grade:1 User Responses:b. DMZ Fee dback:a. A three-legged perimeter is a firewall or server with three NICs: one pointed to the LAN, one to the Internet, and one to the DMZ.38. Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by subnetting? a. It increases security by compartmentalizing the network. b. It is a more efficient use of IP address space. c. It reduces broadcast traffic and collisions. d. It eases administration of the network. Grade:1 User Responses:d. It eases administration of the network. Feedback:a. Subnetting provides a number of benefits but easing administration is not one of them.39. Which of the following is the result of implementing VLANs? . Larger broadcast domains b. Smaller collision domains c. Smaller broadcast domains d. Larger collision domains Grade:1 User Responses:c. Smaller broadcast domains Feedback:a. VLANs break up the network into subnets and as such result in smaller broadcast domains.40. Which of the following services helps conserve public IP addresses? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d . SLIP Grade:0 User Responses:c. DNS Feedback:a. By allowing the use of private IP addresses inside each network and by representing those groups of private IP addresses with a single public IP address, public IP addresses are conserved by NAT.41. Which of the following remote access protocols are used with VPNs? Choose all that apply. a. PPTP b. PPP c. L2TP d. SLIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. L2TP,d. SLIP Feedback:a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. /b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up.42. Which of the following security protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model? a. IPSec b. SSH c. SSL d. TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a.One of the key features of IPSec is its operation at the network layer enabling it to protect any type of communication operating at th e upper layers of the OSI model.43. Which of the following are components of SNMP? Choose all that apply. a. NMS b. IPSec c. Agent d. CARP Grade:1 User Responses:b. IPSec,c. Agent Feedback:a. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. /b. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates.44. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for which of the following? a. PPP b. Telnet c. TLS d. SSH Grade:0 User Responses:d. SSH Feedback:a. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for Telnet, which transmits in clear text.45. Which of the following protocols supersedes SSL? a. SSH b. TLS c. S/MIME d. EAP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SSH Feedback:a. TLS 1. 2, the latest version, is used when establishing an HTTPS connection and supersedes SSLv3.46. The operation of which of the following protocols makes the SY N flood attack possible? a. IPX/SPX b. AppleTalk c. TCP/IP d. RIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. TCP/IP Feedback:a.TCP/IP uses a three-way handshake for its connection, and the SYN flood attack attempts to take advantage of the operation of this connection operation.47. Which of the following provides secure web access? a. SFTP b. HTTP c. HTTPS d. SSH Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443 and is the standard for secure web access.48. SCP is a secure copy protocol that uses the port of which other protocol for transfers? a. HTTPS b. SSH c. SSL d. FTPS Grade:0 User Responses:d. FTPS Feedback:a. Secure copy (SCP) is another example of a protocol that uses another protocol (and its corresponding port). It uses SSH and ultimately uses port 22 to transfer data.49. Which of the following protocols is abused when a ping flood occurs? a. SNMP b. IGMP c. ICMP d. EIGRP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SNMP Feedback:a. Ping floods use ICMP echo request packets aimed at the target. 50. Which of the following security mechanisms are built into IPv6? a. IPSec b. SSL c. HTTPS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. IPv6 has IPSec support built in.51. What method is used by SSL to obtain and validate certificates? a. SPI b. PKI c. TLS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:b. PKI Feedback:a.SSL and TLS use a public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to obtain and validate certificates.52. What port number does FTPS use to protect the transmission? a. 21 b. 88 c. 443 d. 445 Grade:0 User Responses:a. 21 Feedback:a. FTPS uses SSL or TLS over port 443 to make a secure connection.53. Which of the following protocols uses port 22, normally used by SSH, to make a secure connection? a. FTPS b. SCP c. SFTP d. SSL Grade:0 User Responses:b. SCP Feedback:a. Secure FTP (SFTP) uses port 22, the port for SSH, which is why it is also sometimes called SSH FTP.54. Which protocol uses ports 161 and 162? a. SMTP b. IMAP4 . SNMP d. IGMP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SMTP Feedback:a. SNMP is used to collect information about and make changes to devices on the network. It uses ports 161 and 162.55. Which protocol uses the same port as HTTPS? a. SCP b. FTPS c. SFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:0 User Responses:c. SFTP Feedback:a. FTP secure (FTPS) uses port 443, which is also used by HTTPS.56. Which protocol uses port 69? a. SCP b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. TFTP Feedback:a. TFTP uses port 69.57. What port number is used by Telnet? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 23 Feedback:a. Port 23 is used by Telnet.58. Which port does HTTP use? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:b. 443 Feedback:a. HTTP uses port 80.59. Which port does SCP use to transfer data? a. 80 b. 22 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:c. 21 Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data.60. Which protocol uses port 443? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:a. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443.61. Which two protocols use port 22? a. HTTPS b. FT PS c. SSH d. SCP Grade:2 User Responses:c. SSH,d. SCP Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. b. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port.62. Which ports does the NetBIOS protocol uses? Choose all that apply. a. 138 b. 139 c. 137 d. 140 Grade:3 User Responses:a. 138,b. 139,c. 137 Feedback:a. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /b. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /c. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139.63. What protocol uses port 53? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. DNS Grade:0 User Responses:b. FTPS Feedback:a. DNS uses port 53.64. Which port number does RDP use? a. 3389 b. 1723 c. 1701 d. 140 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 3389 Feedback:a. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop (RDP).65. What protocol uses port 25? a. HTTPS b. SMTP c. SSH d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:b. SMTP Feedback:a. SMTP uses port 25.66. Which of the following statements is true regarding WP A and WPA2? (Choose all that apply. ) a. WPA uses 256-bit encryption. b. WPA2 uses 128-bit encryption. c. WPA uses TKIP. d. WPA2 uses AES. Grade:2 User Responses:c. WPA uses TKIP. ,d. WPA2 uses AES. Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. /b. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES.67. Which statement is NOT true with regard to WPA2? a. Uses AES encryption b. Meets requirements of 802. 11i c. Uses TKIP encryption d. Uses 256 bit encryption Grade:1 User Responses:c. Uses TKIP encryption Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP but WPA2 uses AES.68. Which of the following is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard? a. WPA b. WPA2 c. WEP d. CCMP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard.69. What is the authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server called? . EAP b. WPA c. WPA2 d. WEP Grade:1 Us er Responses:a. EAP Feedback:a. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server.70. Which of the following implementations of EAP requires certificates on the client and the server? a. EAP-FAST b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:d. EAP-TLS Feedback:a. EAP-TLS requires certificates on the client and the server.71. Which of the following versions of EAP is Cisco proprietary? a. LEAP b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. LEAP Feedback:a. Lightweight EAP is a version that works only on Cisco devices unless the device is from a partner that participates in the Cisco Compatible Extensions program.72. Why are MAC filters not effective in preventing access to the WLAN? a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in the beacon frames sent by the AP. b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. c. The admi nistrative effort to maintain the MAC list is prohibitive. d. If the user changes his MAC address, the filter will disallow entry. Grade:1 User Responses:b.The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. Feedback:a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device and can be seen by those using wireless protocol analyzers. The MAC address can then be spoofed for entry.73. Which of the following frame types contain the SSID? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Beacon frames b. Data frames c. Association frames d. Authentication frames Grade:3 User Responses:b. Data frames,c. Association frames,d. Authentication frames Feedback:a. The SSID is contained in all frames.If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /b. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /c. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames.74. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of which of the following? a. EAP b. WPA c. WEP d. WPA2 Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of WEP. It was a temporary solution for use until the 802. 1x standard was completed.75. Which of the following encryption protocols is used with WPA2? . TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. DES Grade:1 User Responses:b. CCMP Feedback:a. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is the encryption protocol used with WPA2. It addresses the vulnerabilities of TKIP and meets requirements of IEEE 802. 11i.76. Which antenna types would be best for shaping the signal away from the front of the building for security purposes while still providing coverage in the other part of the building? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Yagi b. Omni c. Parabolic dish d. Semidirectional Grade:2 User Responses:a. Yagi,d. Semidirectional Feedback:a.You can us e a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. /b. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario.77. How can you keep the existing radiation pattern of the antenna while reducing the coverage area? a. Increase the power of the transmitter. b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. c. Change the polarity of the antenna. d. Remove one of the attenuators from the line. Grade:1 User Responses:b. Decrease the power of the transmitter.Feedback:a. Reducing the power level maintains the radiation pattern while making the area of radiation smaller.78. What organization created WPA? a. FCC b. Wi-Fi Alliance c. IEEE d. ISO Grade:1 User Responses:b. Wi-Fi Alliance Feedback:a. The Wi-Fi Alliance created WPA to address the weaknesses of WEP.79. To which standard is WPA2 designed to adhere? a. 802. 16 b. 802. 11f c. 802. 11i d. 802. 11e Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 11i Feedback:a. WPA2 is designed to adhere to the 802. 11i security standard.80. Which of the following is the weakest form of security? a. TKIP b. WPA c. WEP d. EAP Grade:1User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. WEP is the weakest form of security. It has been cracked and is not suitable for Enterprise WLANs.81. A ______________ attack intercepts all data between a client and a server. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Man-in-the-middle Feedback:a. Man-in-the-middle is a type of active interception. If successful, all communications now go through the MITM attacking computer.82. When a group of compromised systems attack a single target it is a called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1User Responses:a. DDoS Feedback:a. A distributed denial-of-service attack occurs when a group of compromised systems launches a DDoS attack on a single target.83. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. man-in-the middle c. replay d. smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. replay Feedback:a. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is a called a replay attack.84. What attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork? a.DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:d. Smurf Feedback:a. A smurf attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork. The ICMP request is sent to a broadcast address. When all hosts receive the ICMP broadcast request, these host send ICMP replies to the source address, which has been set to the address of the target.85. Changing your MAC address to that of another host is called ___________________. a. spear phishing b. spoofing c. pharming d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:b . spoofing Feedback:a.Spoofing is when an attacker tails the IP or MAC address of another computer.86. Which of the following is more an aggravation than an attack? a. Spear phishing b. Spoofing c. Spam d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:c. Spam Feedback:a. Spam or unwanted email is more an aggravation than an attack.87. Which of the following uses instant messaging as its vehicle? a. Spim b. Spoofing c. Phishing d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:a. Spim Feedback:a. Spam Over Instant Messaging (SPIM) uses IM to deliver the spam.88. When VoIP phone calls are used in the pursuit of social engineering, it is called__________. a. spim b. poofing c. phishing d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:d. vishing Feedback:a. Vishing is phishing performed with VoIP calls, which are harder to trace than regular calls.89. What type of attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. Xmas attack Feedback:a. Usually using Nmap, the Xmas attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports.90. __________________ is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. a.DDoS b. Pharming c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Pharming Feedback:a. Host files and vulnerable DNS software can also be victims of pharming attacks. Pharming is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. Pharming can be prevented by carefully monitoring DNS configurations and host files.91. ___________ is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:1 User Responses:d. Privilege escalation Feedback:a.Privilege escalation is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get adminis trative permissions to resources.92. Which problem is the most difficult to contend with? a. Malicious insider threat b. Fraggle attack c. Distributed denial-of-service d. Whaling Grade:1 User Responses:a. Malicious insider threat Feedback:a. Because the attacker already is inside the network with company knowledge, a malicious insider threat is the most difficult to contend with.93. What type of attack can DNS poisoning lead to? a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:0User Responses:c. Spear phishing Feedback:a. Pharming attacks lead users from a legitimate website to a malicious twin. The easiest way to do this is to poison the DNS cache so that the DNS server sends them to the malicious site.94. Strong input validation can help prevent ____________________. a. bluesnarfing b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:0 User Responses:c. session highjacking Feedback:a. SQL injection attacks user input in web forms that is not correctly filtered. This can be prevented with input validations.95. LDAP injection is an attack on __________________servers. . SQL b. directory c. web d. email Grade:1 User Responses:b. directory Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is a protocol used to maintain a directory of information such as user accounts or other types of objects.96. XML injection can be prevented with __________________. a. IDS b. IPS c. input validation d. complex passwords Grade:0 User Responses:d. complex passwords Feedback:a. The best way to protect against this (and all code injection techniques for that matter) is to incorporate strong input validation.97. The .. / attack is also known as ________________. a. irectory traversal b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:a. directory traversal Feedback:a. Directory traversal, or the .. / (dot dot slash) attack is a method to access unauthorized parent (or worse, root) directories.98. ___________ __ is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. a. Directory traversal b. Command injection c. Command highjacking d. Code manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:b. Command injection Feedback:a. Command injection is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS.99. Buffer overflows operate against the _________ of the computer. a. NIC b. disk c. CPU d. memory Grade:1 User Responses:d. memory Feedback:a. A buffer overflow is when a process stores data outside of the memory that the developer intended.100. What is the difference between an XSS and XSRF attack? a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. b. The XSFR attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSS attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. . The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the website, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the client. d. The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the client, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the website. Grade:1 User Responses:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. Feedback:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website. The converse of this: the XSRF attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. In this attack (also known as a one-click attack), the user’s browser is compromised and transmits unauthorized commands to the website.101. _______________ are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. a. Landing spots b. Backdoors c. Hotspots d. Code heels Grade:1 User Responses:b. Backdoors Feedback:a. Backdoors a re placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place.102. An XSS attack is also called a(n) __________________ attack. a. Zero day b. Command injection . Xmas d. Cross site scripting Grade:1 User Responses:d. Cross site scripting Feedback:a. XSS attacks, also called cross site scripting attacks, exploit the trust a user’s browser has in a website through code injection, often in webforms.103. ______________can be used by spyware and can track people without their permission. a. MAC addresses b. Cookies c. IP addresses d. Attachments Grade:1 User Responses:b. Cookies Feedback:a. Cookies are text files placed on the client computer that store information about it, which could include your computer’s browsing habits and possibly user credentials.104. Which of the following attachments is the riskiest to open? a.. exe b.. pdf c.. doc d.. txt Grade:1 User Responses:a.. exe Feedback:a. A . exe or executa ble file is one that contains a program that will do something, perhaps malicious to the computer.105. Stolen cookies can be used to launch a(n) ____________________. a. XSS attack b. SQL injection c. session highjack d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:c. session highjack Feedback:a. Session cookies authenticate you to a server and can be used to highjack your session.106. Header manipulation alters information in ______________ headers. a. LDAP b. file c. HTTP . SQL Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTP Feedback:a. Header manipulation alters information in HTTP headers and falsifies access.107. An ActiveX control is an example of a(n) _________________. a. cookie b. add-on c. cipher d. virus Grade:1 User Responses:b. add-on Feedback:a. You can enable and disable add-on programs such as ActiveX controls in the Programs tab by clicking the Manage add-ons button in Internet Explorer.108. When an attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general, it is called a __________. a. P2P attack b. zero day attack c. whaling attack d. DDoS attack Grade:1User Responses:b. zero day attack Feedback:a. A zero day attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general.109. __________________is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. DMS Grade:1 User Responses:a. DLP Feedback:a. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. It does this through content inspection and is designed to prevent unauthorized use of data as well as prevent the leakage of data outside the computer (or network) that it resides.110. Which form of DLP is typically installed in data centers or server rooms? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:c. Storage DLP Feedback:a. Storage DLP systems are typically installed in data centers or server rooms as software that inspect data at rest.111. Which of the following is an example of drive encryption? a. AppLocker b. BitLocker c. Windows defender d. Trusted Platform Module Grade:1 User Responses:b. BitLocker Feedback:a. To encrypt an entire hard disk, you need some kind of full disk encryption software.Several are currently available on the market; one developed by Microsoft is called BitLocker.112. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is ____________ than software encryption. a. more difficult to crack b. easier to use than software encryption c. faster than software encryption d. can be used to calculate data other than encryption keys Grade:1 User Responses:c. faster than software encryption Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors.This means that they are used for encryption during secure login/authentication processes, during digital signings of da ta, and for payment security systems. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is faster than software encryption.113. A _________________ is a chip residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:d. TPM Feedback:a. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip is one residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys.114. Which of the following is NOT required to encrypt the entire disk in Windows?Choose all that apply. a. TPM chip or USB key b. A hard drive with two volumes c. HSM Module d. Cryptoprocessor Grade:2 User Responses:c. HSM Module,d. Cryptoprocessor Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. /b. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encry pting the entire disk in Windows.115. Probably the most important security concern with cloud computing is _______________. . less secure connections b. loss of physical control of data c. weak authentication d. bug exploitation Grade:1 User Responses:b. loss of physical control of data Feedback:a. Probably the most important security control concern is the physical control of data that is lost when an organization makes use of cloud computing.116. Which of the following is NOT a solution to security issues surrounding cloud computing? a. Complex passwords b. Strong authentication methods c. Standardization of programming d. Multiple firewalls Grade:1 User Responses:d. Multiple firewalls Feedback:a. Solutions to these security issues include complex passwords, strong authentication methods, encryption, and standardization of programming.117. Which form of DLP is typically installed on individual computers? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 Us er Responses:a. Endpoint DLP Feedback:a. Endpoint DLP systems run on an individual computer and are usually software-based. They monitor data in use such as email communications and can control what information flows between various users.118. Where could you disable the use of removable media on a computer? a. Device manager . BIOS c. Control panel d. Programs and features Grade:1 User Responses:b. BIOS Feedback:a. BIOS settings can be used to reduce the risk of infiltration including disabling removable media including the floppy drives and eSATA and USB ports.119. What are two shortcomings of using BitLocker drive encryption? a. Weak encryption b. Expensive c. Performance suffers d. Shorter drive life Grade:2 User Responses:c. Performance suffers,d. Shorter drive life Feedback:a. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. /b. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in perfo rmance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well.120. Which form of DLP is typically installed on the perimeter of the network? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion.121. Software as a service (SaaS) is a type of _____________ computing. a. HSM b. cloud c. role-based d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:b. cloudFeedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most commonly used and recognized example of cloud computing. SaaS is when users access applications over the Internet that are provided by a third party.122. Which form of DLP inspects ONLY data in motion? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solut ions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion.123. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud services? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Examples of cloud services include Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS).124. When an electronic control suffers an error, reports the error, and shuts down, it is called_____________. a. Failopen b. Failsafe c. Failclose d. Failshut Grade:1 User Responses:b. Failsafe Feedback:a. When the control fails and shuts down, it is a failsafe. When it fails and leaves a vulnerable system, it is a failopen.125. What should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected? a. Firewall logs b. Server logs c. Workstation logs d.Security patches Grade:1 User Responses:a. Firewall logs Feedback:a. Logging is also important when it comes to a firewall. Firewall logs should be the first th ing you check when an intrusion has been detected. You should know how to access the logs and how to read them.126. Which log on a Windows server is where you could learn if Joe logged in today? a. Applications b. System c. Security d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:c. Security Feedback:a. The security log contains entries about logins and access to resources both successful and unsuccessful.127. Which of the following is NOT an example of physical security? a. Mantraps b.Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:b. Security logs Feedback:a. Security logs track activities on the network which is logical not physical security.128. Which of the following is NOT a type of door lock? a. Cipher b. Keyed c. Cardkey d. Mantrap Grade:1 User Responses:d. Mantrap Feedback:a. A mantrap is a two door system designed to prevent tailgating.129. Which of the following is NOT an example of operating system hardening? a. Disabling unnecessary services b. Removing the N IC c. Protecting management interfaces d. Password protection Grade:1 User Responses:b. Removing the NIC Feedback:a.Hardening the system should not reduce its functionality, and removing the NIC would do that.130. Which of the following standards is often referred to as port-based security? a. 802. 1x b. 802. 11 c. 802. 11n d. 802. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 802. 1x Feedback:a. 802. 1x enforces perimeter security by keeping the port of the station closed until authentication is complete.131. In which type of monitoring is network traffic analyzed for predetermined attack patterns? a. Signature-based monitoring b. Anomaly-based monitoring c. Behavior-based monitoring d. Reactive-based monitoring Grade:1 User Responses:a. Signature-based monitoringFeedback:a. Network traffic is analyzed for predetermined attack patterns. These attack patterns are known as signatures.132. A(n) __________________ uses baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in s ystems. a. NAT b. SPA c. SLA d. PSK Grade:1 User Responses:b. SPA Feedback:a. The security posture can be defined as the risk level to which a system, or other technology element, is exposed. Security Posture Assessments (SPA) use baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems.133. Which of the following indicate a problem currently occurring? . Trends b. Baselines c. Alarms d. Averts Grade:1 User Responses:c. Alarms Feedback:a. Although alerts indicate an issue that MAY need attention, alarms indicate a problem currently occurring.134. Which of the following are detection controls? (Choose all that apply. ) a. IDS b. IPS c. Video cameras d. Security guard Grade:2 User Responses:a. IDS,c. Video cameras Feedback:a. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. /b. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it.135. Which of the following is designed to prevent tailgating? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:a. Mantraps Feedback:a. Mantraps use double doors to prevent tailgating.136. Which of the following is a proximity reader? a. a security card that transmits the location of the holder b. a device that tracks how close an individual is c. a security card reader that can read the card from a distance d. a card reader that locks the door when the holder is a certain distance from the door Grade:1 User Responses:c. security card reader that can read the card from a distance Feedback:a. These cards use radio waves to transmit to the reader.137. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you _____________ the systems. a. brace b. harden c. virtualize d. hardline Grade:1 User Responses:b. harden Feedback:a. By frequently updating systems and by employing other metho ds such as group policies and baselining, you harden the system.138. Installing service packs is a part of the ___________ process. a. baselining b. hardening c. scaling . security templating Grade:1 User Responses:b. hardening Feedback:a. Hardening the OS is accomplished through the use of service packs, patch management, hotfixes, group policies, security templates, and configuration baselines.139. ______________ can be described as unauthorized WAPs that inadvertently enable access to secure networks. a. Rogue access points b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Phisher Grade:1 User Responses:a. Rogue access points Feedback:a. Rogue access points can be described as unauthorized wireless access points/routers that enable access to secure networks.They differ from an Evil twin in that an Evil twin is strategically placed for the purpose of accessing the network or performing a high jacking attack, whereas rogue access points generally may be placed by employees for their convenience.140. W hich wireless attacks include the introduction of radio interference? a. Rogue Access Point b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:b. Evil twin Feedback:a. The evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the evil twin AP.141. When executing the Evil twin attack, what value must match on the Evil twin and the legitimate AP? . IP address b. SSID c. MAC address d. Admin password Grade:1 User Responses:b. SSID Feedback:a. The Evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the Evil twin AP. The stations will not roam to the Evil twin unless the SSID is the same as the legitimate AP.142. ________________ is when a person attempts to access a wireless network, usually while driving in a vehicle. a. War chalking b. Radiophishing c. War driving d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:c. War driving Feedback:a. War driving is when a person attempts to access a wireless

Monday, July 29, 2019

A contrast between Shakespeare's 'Romeo and Juliet' and the film Essay

A contrast between Shakespeare's 'Romeo and Juliet' and the film version directed by Franco Zeffirelli 1968 - Essay Example In the play, Romeo is in the process of recovering after being jilted by Rosaline (Act 1, Scene 1, Line 155). A rejected lover’s instinctive reaction is to find another love as soon as possible, and Romeo does this, becoming amorously involved with Juliet. The movie however does not depict or refer to Rosaline at all, thereby not laying the foundation as to why Romeo became involved with Juliet. The second difference is discernable in the portrayal of the lovers’ mood during the marriage scene. In the play, Romeo and Juliet are both in a serious mood, which is reflected by the way they speak (in Act II, Scene 6, Line 6 Romeo remarks that the Friar’s holy words were solemn enough to join his hand with Juliet’s in marriage. In the same scene {Lines 33/34 (http://www.tech.mit.edu/Shakespeare/romeo_juliet/full.html)}, Juliet declares that her love for Romeo has grown so much that she is not able to estimate even half of its rich value). In Zeffirelli’s movie the marriage scene is frivolous, with Romeo and Juliet shown kissing, cuddling and giggling all through it. The third difference is apparent in Juliet’s chamber during her funeral scene. In the play, although the Friar knows that Juliet is in fact not dead, still he maintains a deadpan expression throughout the funeral scene, properly condoling the Capulet family, telling them to dry their tears and prepare to bring Juliet’s body to the church for the last rites to be dispensed (Act IV, Scene 5, Lines 68-86 {http://www.tech.mit.edu/Shakespeare/ romeo_juliet/full.html}). In the movie, the Friar almost lets out the secret that Juliet is not dead by being unable to control a giggle; luckily none of the mourners notices what would seem to them a strange act on the part of the holy man (Zeffirelli, Franco. â€Å"Romeo and Juliet {1968}).† The last difference lies in the final scene when the real funerals of Romeo and Juliet take place. In the play, the Montague and Capulet families bury

Sunday, July 28, 2019

Mechanical properties of chassis Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Mechanical properties of chassis - Assignment Example Below is a representation of the car chassis. Parts to be added to the assembly of car chassis include screws. Screws are used in joining the chassis with other parts of the vehicle to aid in easy maintenance of the spare parts. Clutch is also to be included in the chassis assembly as it connects and disconnects the engine power; which makes up a main component of the chassis for power provision. The gear box must also be added to the assembly of the chassis this part works hand in hand with the clutch. Steering wheel, bearing, spring, damping, stabilizer, and brakes determine the dynamics of the vehicle. Damping is used in increasing driving safety and comfort by electronically controlling damping forces for each wheel. A control unit works together with the continuous damping system to calculate the necessary damping forces and adjust the dampers when required. The chassis structure is supported by wheels and Tyre components, which hold the grip of the road and the car. Shock absor bers and springs damp the shocks and vibrations of the car and road this helps in maintaining stability and comfort of the car (Remus, Timothy, and Coddington, 274). Welders next transform the engineered concept into a reality by providing flat surfaces. The end products from the welders are then shot blasted to a white metal, and it is ready to be painted. The chassis is then painted with a urethane coat of high standards as well as a high zinc primer. Next, assembly takes place, the body of the vehicle is linked to the chassis.

Saturday, July 27, 2019

Women in Sciences Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words

Women in Sciences - Essay Example Other men and women scientists spoke from firsthand experience about the difficulties encountered by women scientists in the past and the present. Participants responded to working papers describing the current state of research on each subject and to an evolving plan for discussion. (Gerhard, 1995) Throughout, the principal objective was to identify questions, ideas, theories, and methods, which might contribute to a new research agenda on the subject of women in science, most likely in biological sciences. Biological sciences, today requires the contribution of modern women to think about the several critical aspects, which are never highlighted in such a manner, as they are highlighted today. Today's women are well aware of those facts due to which the importance of women in the field of "biology" urges women to contribute. The main reason apart from the predominating world of men lies in different aspects relating to women psychology which leads women to think in umpteen ways of criticism, the inferiority complex men has developed within women throughout the nations and the rejection of women appearance in several fields in the past. Today's woman has faced criticism while stepping in Biological sciences in many ways, criticism can be considered from two points of view. (Gerhard, 1995) Criticism, as an activity intimation connected with the pursuit of biology, one that is rendered necessary by the fact that biology is a growing subject, and its growth is not a simple matter of accumulation, but involves frequent readjustment between theory and observation. Women have suffered to be illiterate in the beginning of that era which was governed by men's superiority. Despite of the biological supremacy, which she possesses in the form of delivering not only an individual but also a personality, she has still suffered by not subjecting towards biological sciences. Today's women have understood all the crises for which she was not subjected to biology, so she is now passing a threshold beyond which gender no longer matters in determining career outcomes. Women biologists in this era are doing as well as their male counterparts. Among the younger women in the physical sciences, mathematics, and engineering, for example, the average academic status is almost one full rank below the men's. A partial explanation may be that women have achieved a "critical mass" in biology, where they make up a higher percentage of the population than in physics or chemistry or in any other subject. In addition, the attitudes and behaviors of female and male biologists may have created an atmosphere that is more hospitable to women, thus shrinking the gender gap. (Gerhard, 1995) The current status of women in science is a blend of decisive advance and unfulfilled promise, unfulfilled in the sense that the women in sufferance had always kept on promises for the last two decades, she had always prompted to bear the domination from men with

Friday, July 26, 2019

Accessing Water Between Urban Individuals and Bedouins in Saudi Arabia Essay

Accessing Water Between Urban Individuals and Bedouins in Saudi Arabia - Essay Example As a result, it was able to drill thousands of deep tube wells in the most promising areas for both domestic and agricultural use (Royal Embassy of Saudi Arabia). In addition, Saudi Arabia is a desert country with no lakes or rivers and very little rainfall of about 500 mm per year. Moreover, the population is increasing at a high rate hence the increase in the demand for water. Nonetheless, to meet the demand the government in conjunction with water department has employed water distribution systems to enable accessing high quality and clean drinking water. Therefore, this paper aims discuss access of water between the metropolitan individual and Bedouins. From the experiences of both Bedouin’s area and the metropolitan city, there is a significant different in terms water access and water availability. Firstly, the urban dwellers drink water that has been recycled either from a river or the ocean. Most of the water transmission in the urban area is through the pipes from the main distribution center. The piped water is treated using disinfectants and, therefore, healthy and safe for drinking and for domestic uses. The water that serves the urban dwellers comes from the different sources. For instance, water extraction from the sea through desalination and the aquifers well that store water in underground forms the primary sources of water to urban dwellers. The urban individual mostly depends on the modern technology to carry out most of their tasks including pumping the water to their places of residence. They use the electrical power driven machine to pump water to their door steps. This kind of distribution method makes the access of water accessible. In addition, there is the Ministry water that through the water company ensures that urban residents acquire clean disinfected water. The ministry allocates

Thursday, July 25, 2019

Lean Manufacturing Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2500 words

Lean Manufacturing - Essay Example Current process The present procedure is one with an 8 hour shift for 20 days in a month, with both Fridays and Saturdays observed as off-days. The details of the 11 current operations being run can be seen in figure 1. Initially the present VSM or Value Stream Mapping has been developed. VSM is basically is a method to understand the dense relationship between each of the operations. It depicts time elapsed, non-conformance number, inventory and the flow of information between operations. The following advantages of VMS have been elaborated by Tapping, et al. (2002): a) Envision all of the flow of information and material used. b) Envision the relationship between operations and production control. c) Point out the waste sources in the system. d) Identify bottleneck operations. Afterwards statistical charts like bar chart, pie charts and waterfall charts are constructed. For this purpose, all the activities in the operation that that value or non-value added, must be highlighted. Va lue added activity is one which creates value, as customers perceive it. On the other hand, non-value activities are those, for which, the customer will not be liable to pay for. For this reason all non-value activities should be removed from the process immediately. In this scenario, cycle time is a value added activity whereas the set-up time and waiting time are tagged as non-valuable activities. Reason behind future state The immediate target of the future plan is to nullify all non-valuable activities and wastes. Waste is described as the process that does not help in cost reduction and also as a process that doesn’t add to the product value. In total, waste can be categorized in seven parts: 1. Waiting 2. Needless inventory 3. Flaws 4. Transportation 5. Overproduction 6. Incorrect processing 7. Needless motion Nevertheless, another waste which is also considered in this list as the eight waste is over-employment, which means employees, whose services are not fully utili zed. This disease can only be curbed by the input of the employees in the company with innovations and better working ideas. Three major motives are involved in the consideration of lean manufacturing in the very first place. First and foremost is the expanding of the market at a global stage. Then comes, the higher demands of the customer in relation to quality and a better cost. Lastly, the old school methods are no longer accepted, for e.g. once a month delivery of the products to the customer. Lean manufacturing is an outstanding approach to achieve better operations, quality and cost wise. It is a sluggish process but contributes heavily to lessening of wastes. Additionally, it is more prone to increasing the quality of the process. The major motives behind VMS are listed and elaborated as follows: 1. TAKT time and bottleneck station TAKT is the essential element that has to be considered in lean manufacturing to meet the requirements of the customer. According to Carreiera (20 05), TAKT is defined as â€Å"the frequency with which your customer consumes a unit of product†. In simple words, it can be established about TAKT time that, it is the time available for producing a product which is parallel to the needs of the customer. TAKT time can be calculated by the following formula: If the time of the process is less than the

Strategic Review of Kepak Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2000 words

Strategic Review of Kepak - Essay Example To analyze the current strategies followed by the firm internal business analysis has been done by using TOWS Matrix which analysis the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization to produce accurate and strategic solutions and approaches for a better business outcome. Table of Contents Table of Contents 3 Introduction 4 Industry Analysis 4 PESTLE Analysis 4 Porter’s Five Forces 5 Success Factors Driving Beef Industry 6 Company Analysis 7 Competitive Stance 7 Differentiation 7 Positioning 7 Value Chain Analysis 7 Strategic resources 8 Critical strategy 9 Introduction Kepak is one of the three largest beef producers in Ireland. Noel Keating founded the company in mid 1960s and is headquartered at Meath, Ireland. The Business divisions are Kepak Convenience Foods (KCF), Kepak Meat Division (KMD), and Agra Trading. Started as a retail butcher’s business, it soon expanded as a wholesale supplier selling beef to the food service sector and other lar ger markets (Bell, Mcloughlin and Shelman, 2011). The company is facing some challenges as well as some significant opportunities due to the changing business and economic environment in Ireland. Industry Analysis A business environment consists of three major components (American Accounting Association, 2013). These are suppliers, competitors and customers. Kepak’s external business can be assessed by using pestle analysis and porters five forces model. PESTLE Analysis Economic The current gross domestic product (GDP) of Ireland is $191.5 billion and the purchasing power parity is $41,700 (CIA, 2013). The agri-food sector is considered as one of the major indigenous manufacturing sector in Ireland (Department of Agriculture, Food and the Marine, n.d.). Around 85% of the food supplies are exported to a large number of countries. Ireland is considered as Europe’s largest net exporter of beef and is well known for producing highest quality beef (Ukfg, n.d.). Almost 1 lak h Irish farmers are involved in cattle rearing and out of these almost 70000 are categorized as specialist beef producers (Bell, Mcloughlin and Shelman, 2011). In the wake of the current economic crisis, the Irish government has identified food and agriculture business as the major sector which will significantly increase the country’s growth in exports and imports. Social 62% of the total population in Ireland lives in urban areas getting access to the most of the daily requirements. The average age of farmers kept on increasing. In 2007, 51% of the family farm holders were above 55 years old and only 7 percent were under 35 years of age (Bell, Mcloughlin and Shelman, 2011). This was because of a significant change in the occupational trends of people, who gradually shifted from agribusiness to other alternatives for a more stable and secure life. Beef consumption in the European market has fallen since 2007 (Bordbia, n.d.).Various reasons accounted for this. Because of the economic crisis the consumers started cutting back their beef purchases and changed to lesser expensive alternatives such as protein supplements and dairy products. Environmental High waste-water discharges, air emissions associated with energy consumption, solid waste and order and a moderate to high

Wednesday, July 24, 2019

Gay marriages in colorado Research Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Gay marriages in colorado - Research Paper Example How many people would it effect? Why or why should it not be legalized? Evaluate equality standards and the right to marry for everyone. Consider other states that have legalized gay marriage and the effects it has had on their state. Discuss the Minnesota Supreme Courts decision in 1970 about a same sex couple wishing to marry: Jack Baker and Michael McConnell. This was the very first time that government had to ever deal with same sex marriage as an issue. What were the results? How did this start to shape how people think about marriage? Discuss â€Å"All Men are Created Equal,† motto that has been adopted by the United States and how that motto plays a role in gay marriage possibilities not only in Colorado, but throughout the entire country. Discuss how different religions define marriage. As much of the United States history was based on Christianity, discuss how Christians view gay marriage. Discuss any Christian organizations in Colorado that might otherwise recognize gay marriage. Discuss other stigmas of marriage; describe the â€Å"whimsical fairytale† of a husband and wife, two kids and a dog and how that has changed since then. There are other formats that determine what a family is. Traditional roles of a marriage and a family have changed. Discuss why gay marriage is not widely accepted as something that is okay to do in the United States. Look at it from the other direction and discuss why it should be okay. Why are people so opposed to something that does not necessarily affect

Tuesday, July 23, 2019

Aassignment Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 250 words

Aassignment - Assignment Example To make the community aware of the importance of cleaning to prevent mosquitoes, an overall community cleaning program may be organized with the local government. This program, titled as Clean My Own Space entails every household to go out on a designated day to clean up their space and have a community leader assess the cleanliness of their space. Successful households will receive a souvenir shirt (max of 2 for those with two representatives) to commend their efforts. The household with the best waste segregation and disposal practices will receive a special award from the mayor. This way, the inhabitants will be more aware of the importance of clean space to control the spread of mosquitoes. I was in a bookstore looking for â€Å"Dork Diaries† by Rachel Renee Russell, a book my niece wished for Christmas. The store assistant seemed to be very busy when I approached her. I tried to find the book myself but learned that it was on a shelf at a securely locked counter. I approached the woman for the second time to inquire editions of the book. She told me that there are two, one that comes in a set of 6 and another in 3. I preferred the second due to its price but before I bought it, I asked the assistant about the difference in the titles. The assistant seemed irritated and tried to dismiss me by saying that the books are just the same. I insisted that there must be a difference based on the obvious difference in the number of books. She just said that the 6-pack set is hard-bound while the other is soft-bound. I still insisted that she hand me over the books so I could see for myself. When she pretended not to notice me, I said, â€Å"Aren’t you the one in charge here? I hope you’d give me attention because you can’t expect anyone to do your job for you.† Upon hearing this, the woman turned to my direction and got me the

Monday, July 22, 2019

Deer Valley Lodge Project Essay Example for Free

Deer Valley Lodge Project Essay The purpose of this unit 5 individual project is to take into consideration the revamping project associated with Deer Valley Lodge. The ski resort has made plans to add to the already sprawling location and wish to determine whether based on tax and cost information, if the new improvements are of an advantage or a disadvantage to the company as a whole. ? Deer Valley Lodge Deer Valley Lodge is a ski resort that has plans to add five new chairlifts to their site. The costs/interest to the company per chairlift is as follows: †¢Lift Costs $2 Million †¢Preparation of slope and installation costs $1. 3 Million †¢300 additional skiers if built †¢ONLY 40 days a year when the extra room for skiers will be needed. †¢New lifts will cost $500. 00 per day for 200 days †¢Tickets cost $55. 00 per day †¢New lift has an economic life of 20 years The above figures are very important when taking into prospective the planning and implementation of the planning for future extensions. Based on this knowledge, this exercise will call for explanation of the following information in this paper: 1. Assume that the before-tax required rate of return for Deer Valley is 14%. Compute the before-tax NPV of the new lift and advise the managers of Deer Valley about whether adding the lift will be a profitable investment. Show calculations to support your answer. 2. Assume that the after-tax required rate of return for Deer Valley is 8%, the income tax rate is 40%, and the MACRS recovery period is 10 years. Compute the after-tax NPV of the new lift and advise the managers of Deer Valley about whether adding the lift will be a profitable investment. Show calculations to support your answer. 3. What subjective factors would affect the investment decision? Computing Revenue and Cost Based on the previously listed figures it is safe to assume that the below figures will show the appropriate yield given the costs associated with the building of the new lift. Figuring the Incremental revenue and cost is of importance to complete this exercise. Incremental Revenue: $55. 00 per day (X) multiplied by the extra intended tickets which is 300 (X) then multiplied by the intended 40 day usage brings the total revenue cost to 660,000. 00, while Incremental cost is the lift costs of $500/per day multiplied by the total amount of days in service which is 200, which will bring the cost to 100,000. Then you take into prospective the Profit which is the difference of the Incremental revenue and the Incremental costs which in turn is 560,000. If this is the case then it is understood that the before-tax cash flow is as follows: 1. Initial year: 3,300,000 2. Every year after: 560,000 These figures are important when determining the factors that will suggest that the building of the new lift is of the utmost importance. Computing the before-tax NPV of the new lift: Will it be profitable Due to the NPV being a positive number listed in the above calculations it is my belief and will be the advantage of the company in question to go ahead with the project and expect a great return for their efforts.

Sunday, July 21, 2019

Reflection on Multi-Agency Working

Reflection on Multi-Agency Working Multi-agency working Introduction In this report it will be discussing a case conference that has previously taken place and reflect using the Gibbs cycle, (Eggers, 2002) on how the group work was and how the conference went. It will reflect on what happened, how could it of been better, what could be changed for future conferences. Next will be the challenges of multi-agency working that arise in a case conference and how you can overcome these. Then it will discuss the legislation on multi-agency working and how this can affect the people involved and what laws all people working with children must follow. Reflecting on working in a group Working in a group, I thought would make the assignment much easier and as a group I thought would help us all get different opinions into our work and by listening to each other’s views would give us a incite to what we could say in the conference and write about. This however was not the case I found this assignment one of the hardest as we had people in our group that did not live locally and also most of us have children, this being the case made it near impossible to get the group together outside of university. We did however try to overcome this as best as possible by meeting up with who we could when we could and by communication through email and text messaging with updates or with ideas for the scenario. If I had to work within a group again I would possibly change who I work with so that I am with people I know will be on the same working level as myself and that live more locally to make it easier to overcome not being able to meet up when needed. Reflecting on case conference In the case conference I feel that it went quite well, everything that was said linked to each other’s report where necessary. We had a main spokesperson at the meeting this was the social worker as she had all knowledge from all other members of the multi-agency team. Each person involved described a brief of what had been said and what they had already noted as part of the case. In the meeting we did not have Jasmine herself present as she was felt to be too young and venerable to be in the meeting with her mother present so we have an advocate on her behalf who was the Family support worker she described what she had assessed of Jasmine and her older brother had felt about the situation at home and how it was effecting them. Both the Safeguarding officer and the head teacher of the school explained what was disclosed to raise the awareness of a safeguarding and child protection issue. They also stated that there was a meeting with Jasmine and her mother previous to this cas e conference and even more issues were raised regarding not only Jasmines sexual experience but also that she is left at home a lot to look after a very young baby. As the safeguarding policy states that we must protect children from maltreatment, prevent bad health or development, making sure that children are growing up in safe and effective care and to take action to enable all children to have the best possible outcome. (Evans, 2012) The health visitor for Jasmines mother was also at the case conference to explain that when she goes to the house it is dirty with not much food in. It may not have been relevant for the health visitor to be in the conference as she had already reported her concerns before the school was aware of this current concerns and the social worker had already been notified about this previously. The mother of Jasmine had previously had a meeting with the social worker before the case conference and had agreed to attend the conference as well parenting classes and follow up meetings. The Social worker gave everyone the pre-arranged care plan and the mother had agreed to all of the care plan and another meeting was arranged to follow up these actions. A care plan is to make sure the children do not suffer from any more neglect and so they can assess that they are in suitable and stable family home environment. A plan of care is something that describes a straight forward way that the services and support being provided. It will be put together in agreement with the person who needs the support and services by planning and reviewing their needs. (Dubowitz and DePanfilis, 2000) Overall I think the case conference went well there could have been better communication leading up to the conference and we could of suggested further opportunities to help aid Jasmine and her family into the care plan. If I had to attend another case conference, I would look into services to support the children more and help the mother so that she can get financial help to better her living conditions and also help the food needs of the family such as food banks. Challenges of multi-agency working The challenges that arise within the multi-agency team, that were in the case conference were lack of communication. It was hard to contact everyone when needed this slowed down the process of gathering all information needed before the case conference. This is a problem that happens within all multi-agency, the issue of lack of communication happens across all various agencies and voluntary organisations, although it seems to be worse in the education sector. Atkinson (2002) This can be overcome by making phone appointments with the agency’s involved or booking appointments to have meetings every few weeks but as they may have many case this may not be possible this is why I think phone appointments would be quite sufficient. The other challenge we had within working as a multi-agency team was the responsibilities of the people involved and them understanding the roles of themselves as well as others. Some agencies didn’t seem to know who is responsible for what tasks and some moved beyond their existing roles in the case conference. This again comes down to the lack of communication within the group. Legislation In multi-agency working all members of all the different agencies, will have had a Disclosure and Barring Service check done also known as DBS, which used to be called Criminal Record Bureau (CRB) this is a checking system so that the suitability of professionals and volunteers who work with students are safe to work with students and also make sure all staff have the qualifications needed. (Gov.UK, 2014) Raising awareness of the student’s protection and making sure all students have the ability required to make them safe. Developing and implementing procedures for noticing and reporting cases, or possible cases, of abuse. Supporting students that are in or have been abused in accordance with his/her in agreement pre-arranged protection arrangement. Finally establishing a secure surroundings where all students will learn and develop in. Settings recognise that as the professionals who are in regular and frequent contact with the children and are well trained to look out for signs of abuse. The Setting in which they work are responsible that make sure all members of staff no and are trained in safeguarding to protection all students from abuse and from inappropriate and inadequate care. Therefore, the setting is committed to reacting in accordance should any problem arise. The Children Act 2004 presents the legal basis for the way social services and other groups maintain issues on the subject of children. These laws had been laid down so that all individuals who are worried about the wellbeing of children, within their home, schools or any childcare setting, are aware of how children and young people must be taken care of within the eyes of the legislation. The Children Act 2004 was planned to make children to be healthy and so that they are safe in their environments at all times. It also helps children to succeed and be the best they can be. They also help achieve economic permanency for our children’s futures. (Legislation.gov.uk, 2015) Management styles Social Worker Successful management of social workers involves an ability set that is somewhat vast and difficult. The manager needs to be highly qualified in many arenas and ought to be ready to make important life changing decisions. Evidence to work effectively as a multi-agency team Effective multi-agency working depends on four key areas: clarifying roles and responsibilities, engendering trust, mutual respect and understanding between agencies. An advantage of working effectively in a multi-agency team improved services, direct outcomes and prevention of child cases. It also improves access to services which helps families early on and can potentially stop any fatalities or neglect to children. The benefits of effective multi-agency work gives them a broader point of view, a greater figuring out of the issues. Multi-agency teams state that working with experts from other backgrounds is profitable and motivating. (Moran et al., 2007) How to improve multi-agency working To improve multi-agency working is combined working as well as getting best outcomes. This can be achieved by better information sharing between the agencies and raising awareness and understanding of other agencies. In addition, the promotion of a shared responsibility between the agencies. They need to supply more services to improving outcomes for children and families and improving educational achievement. This could be done, by working with other agencies and using their expertise so targets can be achieved. References Atkinson, M. (2002) multi-agency working: a detailed study, National Foundation for Educational Research: Berkshire Dubowitz, H. and DePanfilis, D. (2000). Handbook for child protection practice. Thousand Oaks: Sage Publications. Eggers, H. (2002). Project Cycle Management: A Personal Reflection. Evaluation, 8(4), pp.496-504. Evans, M. (2012). Safeguarding and Welfare Requirements, part 1: Child protection. Nursery World, 2012(5). Gov.uk, (2014). Disclosure and Barring Service (DBS) checks (previously CRB checks) GOV.UK. [Online] Available at: https://www.gov.uk/disclosure-barring-service-check/overview [Accessed 13 Dec. 2014]. Legislation.gov.uk, (2015). Children Act 2004. [Online] Available at: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/2004/31/contents [Accessed 10 Jan. 2015]. Moran, P., Jacobs, C., Bunn, A. and Bifulco, A. (2007). Multi-agency working: implicationfor an early-intervention social work team. Child Family Social Work, 12(2), pp.143-151.

The features of the United States Dollar

The features of the United States Dollar The symbol $, usually written before the numerical amount, is used for the U.S. dollar (as well as for many other currencies). The signs ultimate origins are not certain, though it is possible that it comes from the Pillars of Hercules which flank the Spanish Coat of arms on the Spanish dollars that were minted in the New World mints in Mexico City, Potosà ­, Bolivia, and in Lima, Peru. These Pillars of Hercules on the silver Spanish dollar coins take the form of two vertical bars and a swinging cloth band in the shape of an S. An equally accepted, and better documented, explanation is that this symbol for peso was the result of a late eighteenth-century evolution of the scribal abbreviation ps. The p and the s eventually came to be written over each other giving rise to $. A fictional possibility suggested is that the dollar sign is the capital letters U and S typed one on top of the other. This theory, popularized by novelist Ayn Rand in Atlas Shrugged [23], does not consider the fact that the symbol was already in use before the formation of the United States. United States one-dollar bill ($1) Diagram shoes the obverse of the $1 bill The United States one-dollar bill ($1) is the most common denomination of US currency. The first president, George Washington, painted by Gilbert Stuart, is currently featured on the obverse, while the Great Seal of the United States is featured on the reverse. The one-dollar bill has the second oldest design of all U.S. currency currently being produced, after the two-dollar bill. The obverse seen today debuted in 1963 when the $1 bill first became a Federal Reserve Note. The inclusion of In God We Trust on all currency was required by law in 1955. The national motto first appeared on paper money in 1957.An individual dollar bill is also less formally known as a one, a single or a bone. The Bureau of Engraving and Printing says the average life of a $1 bill in circulation is 21 months before it is replaced due to wear. Approximately 45% of all U.S. currency produced today is one-dollar bills. All $1 bills produced today are Federal Reserve Notes. One-dollar bills are delivered by Federal Reserve Banks in blue straps. Diagram shows reverse of the $1 bill Obverse of current $1 bill Detail of the Treasury Seal as it appears on a $1 bill The portrait of George Washington is displayed in the center of the obverse of the one-dollar bill, as it has been since the 1869 design. The oval containing George Washington is propped up by bunches of Bay Laurel leaves. To the left of George Washington is the Federal Reserve District Seal. The name of the Federal Reserve Bank that issued the note encircles a capital letter, (A-L), identifying it among the twelve Federal Reserve Banks. The sequential number of the bank, (1: A, 2: B, etc.), is also displayed in the four corners of the open space on the bill. Until the redesign of the higher denominations of currency beginning in 1996, this seal was found on all denominations of Federal Reserve Notes. Since then it is only present on the $1 and $2 notes, with the higher denominations only displaying a universal Federal Reserve System seal, and the bank letter and number beneath the serial number. To the right of George Washington is the Treasury Department seal. The balancing scales represent justice. The chevron with thirteen stars represents the original thirteen colonies. The key below the chevron represents authority and trust; 1789 is the year that the Department of the Treasury was established. Below the FRD seal (to the left of George Washington) is the signature of the Treasurer of the U.S., which occasionally varies, and below the USDT Seal (right side) is the Secretary of the Treasurys signature. To the left of the Secretarys signature is the series date. A new series date will result from a change in the Secretary of the Treasury, the Treasurer of the United States, and/or a change to the notes appearance such as a new currency design. On the edges are olive branches entwined around the 1s. Reverse of current $1 bill President Franklin Roosevelts conditional approval of the one-dollar bills design in 1935, requiring that the appearance of the sides of the Great Seal be reversed, and together, captioned. The reverse of the one-dollar bill has an ornate design which incorporates both sides of the Great Seal of the United States to the left and right of the word ONE. This word appears prominently in the white space at the center of the bill in a capitalized, shadowed, and seriffed typeface. A smaller image of the word ONE is superimposed over the numeral 1 in each of the four corners of the bill. THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA spans the top of the bill, ONE DOLLAR is emblazoned along the bottom, and above the central ONE are the words IN GOD WE TRUST, which became the official motto of the United States in 1956. Below the reverse of the Great Seal on the left side of the bill are the words THE GREAT SEAL, and below the obverse on the right side are the words OF THE UNITED STATES. Both reverse and obverse of the Great Seal contain symbols of historical, political, religious, and numerological significance. The Great Seal, originally designed in 1782 and added to the dollar bills design in 1935, is surrounded by an elaborate floral design. The renderings used were the typical official government versions used since the 1880s. The reverse of the seal on the left features a barren landscape dominated by an unfinished pyramid of 13 steps, topped by the Eye of Providence within a triangle. At the base of the pyramid are engraved the Roman numerals MDCCLXXVI (1776), the date of American independence from Britain. At the top of the seal stands a Latin phrase, ANNUIT COEPTIS, meaning He (God) favors our undertaking. At the bottom of the seal is a semicircular banner proclaiming NOVUS ORDO SECLORUM meaning New Order of the Ages, which is a reference to the new American era. To the left of this seal, a string of 13 pearls extends toward the edge of the bill. The obverse of the seal on the right features a bald eagle, the national bird and symbol of the United States. Above the eagle is a radiant cluster of 13 stars arranged in a six-pointed star. The eagles breast is covered by a heraldic shield with 13 stripes that resemble those on the American flag. As on the first US flag, the stars and stripes stand for the 13 original states of the union. The eagle holds a ribbon in its beak reading E PLURIBUS UNUM, a Latin phrase meaning Out of many [states], one [nation], a de facto motto of the United States (and the only one until 1956). In its left talons the eagle holds 13 arrows, and in its right talons it holds an olive branch with 13 leaves and 13 olives, representing, respectively, the powers of war and peace. To the right of this seal, a string of 13 pearls extends toward the edge of the bill. Conspiracy The symbology of the Great Seal of the United States, and its subsequent use on the dollar bill (especially the pyramid and the Eye of Providence above the pyramid) are popular topics among conspiracy theorists. Conspiracy theorists are of the opinion that much of the symbolism involves occultism. For example, because the Eye of Providence above the unfinished pyramid is similar to the ancient Egyptian Eye of Horus, a charm, relating to the Pagan/Egyptian sky-god Horus which symbolized that worshipers will be protected and given royal powers from Pagan deities. In fact, Eye of Providence was a common Christian emblem symbolizing the Trinity throughout the Middle Ages and Renaissance. Conspiracy theorists also note that the unfinished pyramid has thirteen steps (or that some other element of the Seal numbers thirteen), and are of the opinion that the number 13 has conspiratorial significance. The explanation for the repetition of the number thirteen is that this number represents the original thirteen colonies which became the first thirteen states. United States two-dollar bill ($2) The United States two-dollar bill ($2) is a current denomination of U.S. currency. Former U.S. President Thomas Jefferson is featured on the obverse of the note. The reverse features an engraved modified reproduction of the painting The Declaration of Independence by John Trumbull. The bill was discontinued in 1966, but was reintroduced 10 years later as part of the United States Bicentennial celebrations. Today, however, it is rarely seen in circulation and actual use. Production of the note is the lowest of U.S. paper money: less than 1% of all notes currently produced are $2 bills. This comparative scarcity in circulation, coupled with a lack of public awareness that the bill is still in circulation, has also inspired urban legends and, on a few occasions, created problems for people trying to use the bill to make purchases. Throughout the $2 bills pre-1928 life as a large-sized note, it was issued as a United States Note, National Bank Note, Silver Certificate, and Treasury or HYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treasury_(Coin)_NoteHYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treasury_(Coin)_NoteCoinHYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treasury_(Coin)_NoteHYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treasury_(Coin)_Note Note. When U.S. currency was changed to its current size, the $2 bill was issued only as a United States Note. After United States Notes were discontinued, the $2 bill later began to be issued as a Federal Reserve Note. United States five-dollar bill ($5) The United States five-dollar bill ($5) is a denomination of United States currency. The $5 bill currently features U.S. President Abraham Lincolns portrait on the front and the Lincoln Memorial on the back. All $5 bills issued today are Federal Reserve Notes. Five dollar bills are delivered by Federal Reserve Banks in red straps. The $5 bill is sometimes nicknamed a fin. The term has German/Yiddish roots and is remotely related to the English five, but it is far less common today than it was in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. The Bureau of Engraving and Printing says the average life of a $5 bill in circulation is 16 months before it is replaced due to wear. Approximately 9 percent of all paper currency produced by the U.S. Treasurys Bureau of Engraving and Printing today are $5 bills. United States ten-dollar bill ($10) The United States ten-dollar bill ($10) is a denomination of United States currency. The first U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Alexander Hamilton, is currently featured on the obverse of the bill, while the U.S. Treasury is featured on the reverse. (Hamilton is one of two non-presidents featured on currently issued U.S. bills. The other is Benjamin Franklin, on the $100 HYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_one_hundred-dollar_billbill. In addition to this, Hamilton is the only person featured on U.S. currency who was not born in the continental United States, as he was from the West Indies.) All $10 bills issued today are Federal Reserve Notes. The Bureau of Engraving and Printing says the average life of a $10 bill in circulation is 18 months before it is replaced due to wear. Approximately 11% of all newly printed US banknotes are $10 bills. Ten dollar bills are delivered by Federal Reserve Banks in yellow straps. The source of the face on the $10 bill is John Trumbulls 1805 portrait of Hamilton that belongs to the portrait collection of New York City Hall. The $10 bill is the only U.S. paper currency in circulation in which the portrait faces to the left (the $100,000 bill features a portrait of Woodrow Wilson facing to the left, but was used only for intra-government transactions). United States twenty-dollar bill ($20) The United States twenty-dollar bill ($20) is a denomination of United States currency. U.S. President Andrew Jackson is currently featured on the front side of the bill, which is why the twenty-dollar bill is often called a Jackson, while the White House is featured on the reverse side. The twenty-dollar bill in the past was referred to as a double-sawbuck because it is twice the value of a ten-dollar bill, which was nicknamed a sawbuck due to the resemblance the Roman numeral for ten (X) bears to the legs of a sawbuck, although this usage had largely fallen out of favor by the 1980s.[1] The twenty dollar gold coin was known as a double eagle. Rather than a nickname, this nomenclature was specified by an act of Congress. The Bureau of Engraving and Printing says the average circulation life of a $20 bill is 25 months (2 years) before it is replaced due to wear. Approximately 22% of all notes printed today are $20 bills. Twenty-dollar bills are delivered by Federal Reserve Banks in violet straps. United States fifty-dollar bill ($50) The United States fifty-dollar bill ($50) is a denomination of United States currency. Ulysses S. Grant is currently featured on the obverse, while the U.S. Capitol is featured on the reverse. All $50 bills issued today are Federal Reserve Notes. The Bureau of Engraving and Printing says the average life of a $50 bill in circulation is 55 months before it is replaced due to wear. Approximately 5% of all notes printed today are $50 bills. They are delivered by Federal Reserve Banks in brown straps. A fifty dollar bill is sometimes called a Grant based on the use of Ulysses S. Grants portrait on the bill. Andrew Jacksons actions toward the Native Americans as a general, as well as during his Presidency, have led some historians to question the suitability of Jacksons depiction on the twenty-dollar bill. Howard Zinn, for instance, identifies Jackson as a leading exterminator of Indians, and notes how the public commemoration of Jackson obscures this part of American history. Those opposed to Central Banking point out the irony of Andrew Jackson on a Federal Reserve Note. Jackson spent much of his Presidency fighting against the Bank of the United States, which was at that time the government sanctioned Federal Bank. An email emerged after the events of 9/11 which alleged that folding the twenty-dollar bill a certain way produced images appearing to be 9/11 related (specifically the World Trade Center and the Pentagon burning).[9] United States one hundred-dollar bill ($100) The United States one hundred-dollar bill ($100) is a denomination of United States currency. The redesigned $100 bill was unveiled on April 21, 2010, and the Federal Reserve Board will begin issuing the new bill on February 10, 2011. U.S. statesman, inventor, and diplomat Benjamin Franklin is currently featured on the obverse of the bill. On the reverse of the banknote is an image of Independence Hall. The time on the clock according to the U.S. Bureau of Engraving and Printing, shows approximately 4:10. The numeral four on the clock face is incorrectly written as IV whereas the real Independence Hall clock face has IIII. (See Roman numerals in clocks.) The bill is one of two current notes that do not feature a President of the United States; the other is the United States ten-dollar bill, featuring Alexander Hamilton. It is the largest denomination that has been in circulation since July 14, 1969, when the higher denominations of $500, $1,000, $5,000, $10,000 and $100,000 were retired. The Bureau of Engraving and Printing says the average life of a $100 bill in circulation is 60 months (5 years) before it is replaced due to wear. Approximately 7% of all notes produced today are $100 bills. The bills are also commonly referred to as Benjamins in reference to the use of Benjamin Franklins portrait on the denomination. They are also often referred to as C-Notes based on the Roman numeral C which means 100.One hundred-dollar bills are delivered by Federal Reserve Banks in mustard-colored straps ($10,000).The Series 2009 $100 bill redesign was unveiled on April 21, 2010 and will be issued to the public on February 10, 2011. Federal Reserve Note A Federal Reserve Note is a type of banknote. Federal Reserve Notes are printed by the United States Bureau of Engraving and Printing on paper made by Crane HYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crane__Co.HYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crane__Co. Co. of Dalton, Massachusetts. They are the only type of U.S. banknote that is still produced today and they should not be confused with Federal Reserve Bank Notes. Federal Reserve Notes are authorized by Section 411 of Title 12 of the United States Code. They are issued to the Federal Reserve Banks at the discretion of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. The notes are then issued into circulation by the Federal Reserve Banks. When the notes are issued into circulation they become liabilities of the Federal Reserve Banks and obligations of the United States. Federal Reserve Notes are fiat currency, with the words this note is legal tender for all debts, public and private printed on each note. (See generally 31 U.S.C.  Ã‚  5103.) They have replaced United States Notes, which were once issued by the Treasury Department. Various Federal Reserve Notes, c.1995. Only the designs of the $1 and $2 (not pictured) are still in print. The New $100 Bill The redesigned $100 bill was unveiled on April 21, 2010, and the Federal Reserve Board will begin issuing the new note on February 10, 2011. The redesigned $100 note incorporates a number of security features, including two new advanced features, the 3-D Security Ribbon and the Bell in the Inkwell. It offers a simple and subtle way to verify that a new $100 note is real. These security features were developed to make it easier to authenticate the note and more difficult for counterfeiters to replicate. There are several new security features as stated below: 3-D Security Ribbon: Look for a blue ribbon on the front of the note. Tilt the note back and forth while focusing on the blue ribbon. You will see the bells change to 100s as they move. When you tilt the note back and forth, the bells and 100s move side to side. If you tilt it side to side, they move up and down. The ribbon is woven into the paper, not printed on it. Bell in the Inkwell: Look for an image of a color-shifting bell, inside a copper-colored inkwell, on the front of the new $100 note. Tilt it to see the bell change from copper to green, an effect which makes the bell seems to appear and disappear within the inkwell. Additional Design and Security Features: Three highly effective security features from the older design have been retained and updated in the new $100 note. Several additional features have been added to protect the integrity of the new $100 note. Portrait Watermark: Hold the note to light and look for a faint image of Benjamin Franklin in the blank space to the right of the portrait. Security Thread: Hold the note to light to see an embedded thread running vertically to the left of the portrait. The thread is imprinted with the letters USA and the numeral 100 in an alternating pattern and is visible from both sides of the note. The thread glows pink when illuminated by ultraviolet light. Color-Shifting 100: Tilt the note to see the numeral 100 in the lower right corner of the front of the note shift from copper to green. Raised Printing: Move your finger up and down Benjamin Franklins shoulder on the left side of the note. It should feel rough to the touch, a result of the enhanced intaglio printing process used to create the image. Traditional raised printing can be felt throughout the $100 note, and gives genuine U.S. currency its distinctive texture. Gold 100: Look for a large gold numeral 100 on the back of the note. It helps those with visual impairments distinguish the denomination. Micro printing: Look carefully to see the small printed words which appear on Benjamin Franklins jacket collar, around the blank space containing the portrait watermark, along the golden quill, and in the note borders. FW Indicator: The redesigned $100 notes printed in Fort Worth, Texas, will have a small FW in the top left corner on the front of the note to the right of the numeral 100. If a note does not have an FW indicator, it was printed in Washington, D.C. Federal Reserve Indicator: A universal seal to the left of the portrait represents the entire Federal Reserve System. A letter and number beneath the left serial number identifies the issuing Federal Reserve Bank. There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks and 24 branches located in major cities throughout the United States. Serial Numbers: The unique combination of eleven numbers and letters appears twice on the front of the bill. Because they are unique identifiers, serial numbers help law enforcement identify counterfeit notes, and they also help the Bureau of Engraving and Printing track quality standards for the notes they produce. Large Denominations of United States Currency Today, the base currency of the United States is the U.S. dollar, and is printed on bills in denominations of $1, $2, $5, $10, $20, $50, and $100. At one time, however, it also included five larger denominations. High-denomination currency was prevalent from the very beginning of U.S. Government issue (1861). $500, $1,000, $5,000, and $10,000 interest bearing notes were issued in 1861, and $5,000 and $10,000 United States Notes were released in 1878 There are many different designs and types of high-denomination notes. The high-denomination bills were issued in a small size in 1929, along with the $1 through $100 denominations. The designs were as follows, along with their 1929 equivalents in current purchasing power (except for the $100,000 bill, which uses the 1934 equivalent): $1,000: Grover Cleveland, equal to $12,700 in 2010 dollars $5,000: James Madison, equal to $63,500 in 2010 dollars $10,000: Salmon P. Chase, equal to $127,000 in 2010 dollars The reverse designs abstract scrollwork with ornate denomination identifiers. All were printed in green, except for the $100,000. The $100,000 is an odd bill, in that it was not generally issued, and printed only as a gold certificate of Series of 1934. These gold certificates (of denominations $100, $1,000, $10,000, and $100,000) were issued after the gold standard was repealed and gold was compulsorily purchased by presidential order of Franklin Roosevelt on March 9, 1933 (see United States Executive Order 6102), and thus were used only for intra-government transactions. They are printed in orange on the reverse. This series was discontinued in 1940. The other bills are printed in black and green as shown by the $10,000 example (pictured at right). Although they are still technically legal tender in the United States, high-denomination bills were last printed in 1945 and officially discontinued on July 14, 1969, by the Federal Reserve System.[1] The $5,000 and $10,000 effectively d isappeared well before then: there are only about two hundred $5,000 bills, and three hundred $10,000 bills known, of all series since 1861. Of the $10,000 bills, 100 were preserved for many years by Benny Binion, the owner of BinionHYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binions_HorseshoeHYPERLINK http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binions_Horseshoes Horseshoe casino in Las Vegas, Nevada, where they were displayed encased in acrylic. The display has since been dismantled and the bills were sold to private collectors. The Federal Reserve began taking high-denomination bills out of circulation in 1969. As of May 30, 2009, there were only 336 of the $10,000 bills in circulation; 342 remaining $5,000 bills; and 165,372 $1,000 bills still being used.[2] Due to their rarity, collectors will pay considerably more than the face value of the bills to acquire them. For the most part, these bills were used by banks and the Federal Government for large financial transactions. This was especially true for gold certificates from 1865 to 1934. However, the introduction of the electronic money system has made large-scale cash transactions obsolete; when combined with concerns about counterfeiting and the use of cash in unlawful activities such as the illegal drug trade, it is unlikely that the U.S. government will re-issue large denomination currency in the near future. According to the US Department of Treasury website, The present denominations of our currency in production are $1, $2, $5, $10, $20, $50, and $100. Neither the Department of the Treasury nor the Federal Reserve System has any plans to change the denominations in use today.